I've read the posts regarding the relationship between apnea and depression, including the NY Times article (http://www.nytimes.com/2005/09/20/health/psychology/20sleep.html?ex=1127880000&en=1b101f325ee37cc5&ei=5070&emc=eta1) and the Stanford University press release (http://www.eurekalert.org/pub_releases/2003-11/sumc-sad110603.php).  These all seem to say that the symptoms of apnea are often misdiagnosed as depression.

My question is, what about the other way around?

I didn't show any overt symptoms of apnea until I fell asleep out for a brief moment while driving (!) the weekend after a failed reconciliation with a woman who I had wanted to marry.  (Long story, obviously; as for the driving incident, luckily, a friend was in the car, and we weren't on a busy road.)  Things were also not wonderful at work, and I had been put on the waiting list for a professional development program that I really thought we be a good thing for me.

I was feeling sleepy at least once or twice a day, and actually fell asleep a few other times, including once during a (admittedly boring) meeting at work.

I went to my doctor, who referred me to a sleep/pulmonary specialist.  I had a sleep study, but had a hard time falling asleep there (and when I did, the technician woke me when she replaced a sensor that had come loose, and I had a hard time again). I had a sleep efficiency of 26 percent, and no REM.  But when I did sleep, there was about one episode per minute (57 an hour), which I gather is pretty bad.

Then I went on vacation, and when I came back I got into the program.  There's even an apparently mutual flirtation with a woman in the program.  In short, things are a lot better, and I'm feeling that way.  And I haven't been feeling sleepy or falling asleep since I've been back.

I mentioned this at the follow-up appt after the sleep study, but the doctor dismissed this, pointing to the results of the sleep study.  (When I mentioned to coincidence of the failed reconcilation and the first overt symptom, he said, "Well, it has to start sometime.")  Now he wants me to do a titration study.  I think I'm going to insist on a second sleep study first.

But does it make any sense that apnea would come and go, according to my state of mind?  I know the mind-body connection is a mysterious thing, but I'm not sure that this isn't just wishful thinking on my part.

Any thoughts are welcome.

I can't explain that.
But I wouldn't worry about the titration study.  It looks for your apneas.  And the cpap is used to exert enough pressure to reduce the apneas.  They track this on the computer and it's recorded.  The graphs show how the apneas are reduced with increased pressures, until they find the pressure that eliminates all or most of the apneas.  That pressure is used in the prescribing of the machine.  So if they find you're not exhibiting apneas at that study, then that's it.  I don't think you need a restudy of the first part necessarily.  The second would be sufficient, and if you still have apnea, then you will be further along in prescribing what you need, IMHO.  

I don't know what could explain the change.  Did you have a restful vacation or were you up all the time or most of the time.  I found with my untreated apnea, I was a little better off if I tried to sleep less than when I tried to sleep more.  My guess is that my oxygen levels dipped low during sleep, and with less sleep this wasn't happening.  Only a theory.  

Anyhow, good luck to you.


Linda

Hi Eric,

Obstructive Sleep Apnea (OSA) doesn't come and go.  The name is literal.  Apnea is caused by a physical obstruction which can not be overcome by feeling mentally better.  If your sleep study showed OSA, and you need a CPAP, then you need a titration.

Vicki


_________________
That which does not kill you makes you stronger-Friedrich Nietzsche
Friedrich must of had apnea.